Why does India have a per capita grain production of less than half that of China, yet become a world grain exporter, while China has become a net grain importer?

This is puzzling, right?

I believe the core reason is that land in India is privately owned, and the inevitable result of land privatization is concentration. Concentration itself is not a problem, but if urbanization does not develop quickly enough to absorb the excess population, it will become an issue.

In India, 50% of farmers own only 1% of the land, and among them, 35% are landless farmers. Therefore, the large landowners in India produce grain, but the poor in the country cannot afford it, so it naturally goes to the international market.

So, it is not that private ownership is inherently good or that all aspects are positive. The underlying logic of "the rich feast while the poor freeze" is rooted in private ownership.

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